Question 98 of 416MediumMCQ
Let f(x) be a function satisfying f(x)+f(π−x)=π2, ∀x∈R. Then ∫0πf(x)sinxdx is equal to: Solutions · 1
Official solution
By King's rule, I=∫0πf(π−x)sinxdx (since sin(π−x)=sinx). Adding:
\[2I = \int_0^\pi\big[f(x)+f(\pi-x)\big]\sin x\,dx = \pi^2\int_0^\pi\sin x\,dx = \pi^2\cdot2 = 2\pi^2\]
\[I = \pi^2\] Answer the question to unlock