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Question 263 of 379MediumNUMERICAL
If p⃗=(a+1)i^+aj^+ak^\vec p=(a+1)\hat i+a\hat j+a\hat k, q⃗=ai^+(a+1)j^+ak^\vec q=a\hat i+(a+1)\hat j+a\hat k, r⃗=ai^+aj^+(a+1)k^\vec r=a\hat i+a\hat j+(a+1)\hat k (a∈Ra\in\mathbb R) are coplanar, and 3(p⃗⋅q⃗)2−λ∣r⃗×q⃗∣2=03(\vec p\cdot\vec q)^2-\lambda|\vec r\times\vec q|^2=0, then λ\lambda is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Answer: 1
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