Question 294 of 417EasyMCQ
The mean and the variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then the probability of 2 successes is : Solutions · 1
Official solution
Given that mean = 4 = np = 4 and variance = 2
npq = 2 \[\Rightarrow\] 4q = 2
\[ \Rightarrow q = {1 \over 2}\]
\[\therefore\] \[p = 1 - q = 1 - {1 \over 2} = {1 \over 2}\]
Also, n = 8
Probability of 2 successes =P(X=2)=8C2p2q6
\[ = {{8!} \over {2! \times 6!}} \times {\left( {{1 \over 2}} \right)^2} \times {\left( {{1 \over 2}} \right)^6} = 28 \times {1 \over {{2^8}}}\]
\[ = {{28} \over {256}}\] Answer the question to unlock