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Question 78 of 401HardNUMERICAL
Let x{x} denote the fractional part of xx and f(x)=cos⁡−1(1−x2)sin⁡−1(1−x)x−x3,x≠0f(x)=\frac{{\cos }^{-1}(1-{x{}}^{2}){\sin }^{-1}(1-{x})}{{x}-{x{}}^{3}},x\ne 0. If LL and RR respectively denotes the left hand limit and the right hand limit of f(x)f(x) at x=0x=0, then 32π2(L2+R2)\frac{32}{{\pi }^{2}}({L}^{2}+{R}^{2}) is equal to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Answer: 18
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