Question 7 of 401HardMCQ
Let f(x)=θ→0lim(1+x(θ2)(x−1)cosπx−x(θ2)sin(x−1)),x∈R. Consider the following two statements :
(I) f(x) is discontinuous at x=1.
(II) f(x) is continuous at x=−1.
Then,
Solutions · 1
Official solution
The function is defined as :
f(x)=θ→0lim(1+x(θ2)(x−1)cosπx−x(θ2)sin(x−1))
Let n=θ2. As θ→0,n→∞ (specifically, let's consider θ approaching 0 such that the power grows). The behavior of the function depends on the value of x because of the term xn.
Case 1 : ∣x∣f(x)=\frac{\cos \pi x-0}{1+0}=\cos \pi xCase2:|x|>1Asn\to \infty,{x}\^{n}\to \infty.Wedividethenumeratoranddenominatorby{x}\^{n}:f(x)=\underset{n\to \infty}{lim}\frac{\frac{\cos \pi x}{{x}\^{n}}-\sin (x-1)}{\frac{1}{{x}\^{n}}+(x-1)}=\frac{0-\sin (x-1)}{0+(x-1)}=\frac{-\sin (x-1)}{x-1}Case3:x=1Ifx=1,then\cos (\pi )=-1and\sin (0)=0.f(1)=\frac{-1-({1}\^{n}\cdot 0)}{1+({1}\^{n}\cdot 0)}=-1Case4:x=-1Ifx=-1,then\cos (-\pi )=-1and\sin (-2)=-\sin (2).Sincen=2/\theta iseven,(-1{)}\^{n}=1.f(-1)=\frac{-1-(1\cdot \sin (-2))}{1+(1\cdot -2)}=\frac{-1+\sin 2}{-1}=1-\sin 2Sof(x)becomef(x)=\[\begin{gathered} \frac{-\sin (x-1)}{x-1} x\in (-\infty,-1)\cup (1,\infty) \\ \cos \pi x x\in (-1,1) \\ 0 x=1 \\ 1-\sin 2 x=-1 \end{gathered}\]AnalyzetheStatementsStatement(I):f(x)isdiscontinuousatx=1.Valueatx=1:f(1)=-1.Left−handlimit(x\to {1}\^{-}):Usesthe|x|
Right-hand limit (x→1+) : Uses the ∣x∣>1 definition: x→1+limx−1−sin(x−1). Using the standard limit u→0limusinu=1, this equals -1. Since LHL=RHL=f(1), the function is continuous at x=1.
Conclusion : Statement (I) is False.
Statement (II) : f(x) is continuous at x=−1.
Value at x=−1 : f(−1)=1−sin2.
Left-hand limit (x→−1−): Uses ∣x∣>1 definition : −1−1−sin(−1−1)=−2−sin(−2)=−2sin2.
Right-hand limit ( x→−1+
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