Official solution
f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1 and f(2) = 2
Let h(x) = f(x) - x
Clearly h(x) is continuous and twice differentiable on (0, 2)
Also, h(0) = h(1) = h(2) = 0
\[\therefore\] h(x) satisfies all the condition of Rolle's theorem.
\[\therefore\] there exist C1 \[\in(0, 1) such that h'(c1) = 0
\[\Rightarrow\] f'(1) - 1 = 0 \[\Rightarrow\] f'(c1) = 1
also there exist c2 \[\in(1, 2) such that h'(c2) = 0
\[\Rightarrow\] f'(c2) = 1
Now, using Rolle's theorem on [c1, c2] for f'(x)
We have f''(c) = 0, c\[\in(c1, c2)
Hence, f''(x) = 0 for some x\[\in(0, 2).