Question 7 of 67MediumMCQ
Let f(x)=ax3+bx2+cx+41 be such that f(1)=40,f′(1)=2 and f′′(1)=4. Then a2+b2+c2 is equal to:
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Official solution
Given the polynomial function:
f(x)=ax3+bx2+cx+41
We are provided the following conditions from the problem:
1. f(1)=40
2. \[f^{\prime}(1) = 2\]
3. \[f^{\prime \prime}(1) = 4\]
First, calculate f(1):
f(1)=a(1)3+b(1)2+c(1)+41=40
Simplifying, we get:
a+b+c+41=40
Therefore:
a+b+c=−1
Next, calculate the first derivative f′(x):
\[f^{\prime}(x) = 3ax^2 + 2bx + c\]
Given f′(1)=2:
\[f^{\prime}(1) = 3a(1)^2 + 2b(1) + c = 2\]
Simplifying, we get:
3a+2b+c=2
Next, calculate the second derivative f′′(x):
\[f^{\prime \prime}(x) = 6ax + 2b\]
Given f′′(1)=4:
\[f^{\prime \prime}(1) = 6a(1) + 2b = 4\]
Simplifying, we get:
6a+2b=4
Dividing the entire equation by 2:
3a+b=2
We now have three equations:
1. a+b+c=−1
2. 3a+2b+c=2
3. 3a+b=2
To solve for a, b, and c, follow these steps:
First, subtract the third equation from the second equation:
(3a+2b+c)−(3a+b)=2−2
Which simplifies to:
b+c=0
So,
c=−b
Substitute c=−b into the first equation:
(a+b−b=−1)
Simplifying, we get:
a=−1
Now substitute a=−1 into the third equation:
3(−1)+b=2
Which simplifies to:
−3+b=2
Therefore:
b=5
Next, since c=−b:
c=−5
Finally, we need to find a2+b2+c2:
a2+b2+c2=(−1)2+52+(−5)2
Simplifying, we get:
1+25+25=51
Therefore, the answer is:
Option B: 51
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