Question 456 of 490MediumMCQ
Let y=f(x) be the solution of the differential equation y(x+1)dx−x2dy=0,y(1)=e. Then \[\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to {0^ + }} f(x)\] is equal to Solutions · 1
Official solution
Given,
y(x+1)dx−x2dy=0
\[ \Rightarrow \left( {{{x + 1} \over {{x^2}}}} \right)dx = {{dy} \over y}\]
\[ \Rightarrow {1 \over x}dx + {{dx} \over {{x^2}}} = {{dy} \over y}\]
Integrating both sides, we get
\[\int {{{dx} \over x} + \int {{{dx} \over {{x^2}}} = \int {{{dy} \over y}} } } \]
\[ \Rightarrow \ln |x| - {1 \over x} = \ln |y| + C\] ..... (1)
Given y(1)=e
\[\therefore\] x=1 and y=e
Putting value of x and y in equation (1), we get
\[\ln |1| - {1 \over 1} = \ln |e| + C\]
\[ \Rightarrow 0 - 1 = 1 + C\]
\[ \Rightarrow C = - 2\]
\[\therefore\] Equation (1) becomes,
\[\ln |x| = - {1 \over x} = \ln |y| - 2\]
\[ \Rightarrow \ln |y| = \ln |x| - {1 \over x} + 2\]
\[ \Rightarrow y = {e^{\ln |x|}}\,.\,{e^{2 - {1 \over x}}}\]
\[ \Rightarrow y = x\,.\,{e^{2 - {1 \over x}}}\]
Now,
\[\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to {0^ + }} y\]
\[ = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to {0^ + }} \left( {x\,.\,{e^{2 - {1 \over x}}}} \right)\]
\[ = 0\,.\,{e^{ - \alpha }}\]
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