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Question 291 of 490MediumMCQ
If (2+sin⁡x)dydx+(y+1)cos⁡x=0(2+\sin x)\dfrac{dy}{dx}+(y+1)\cos x=0, y(0)=1y(0)=1, then y(π2)y\left(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\right) is:
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