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Question 133 of 490MediumMCQ
A function y=f(x)y=f(x) satisfies f(x)sin⁡2x+sin⁡x−(1+cos⁡2x)f′(x)=0f(x)\sin2x+\sin x-(1+\cos^2x)f'(x)=0, f(0)=0f(0)=0. Then f ⁣(π2)f\!\left(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\right) is:
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