Question 95 of 246HardNUMERICAL
If f(t)=∫0π1−cos2tsin2x2xdx,0<t<π, then the value of ∫02πf(t)π2dt equals \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
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Official solution
f(t)=∫0π1−cos2tsin2x2xdxx→π−x
f(t)=∫0π1−cos2tsin2x2(π−x)dx=2π∫0π1−cos2tsin2xdx−f(t)⇒f(t)=π∫0π1−cos2tsin2xdx=2π∫02π1−cos2tsin2xdxf(t)=2π∫02πsec2x−cos2ttan2xsec2xdxI1=∫sec2x−cos2ttan2xsec2xdxcosttanx=λ⇒costsec2xdx=dλI1=∫cost⋅(1+λ2sec2t−λ2)dλ=∫cost(1+λ2tan2t)dλ
\begin{gathered} =\frac{1}{\cos t\cdot {\tan }^{2}t}\cdot \int \frac{d\lambda }{{\lambda }^{2}+{\cos }^{2}t}= \frac{1}{\cos t{\tan }^{2}t} \\ \times \frac{1}{\cos t}{\tan }^{-1}(\lambda \tan t)
=\frac{1}{\sin t}{\tan }^{-1}(\sin t\tan x) \\ \Rightarrow {f(t)=\frac{2\pi }{\sin t}{\tan }^{-1}(\sin t\tan x)]}_{\frac{\pi }{2}}^{0}=\frac{{\pi }^{2}}{\sin t} \\ \Rightarrow \int _{0}^{\frac{\pi }{2}}\frac{{\pi }^{2}dt}{f(t)}=\int _{0}^{\frac{\pi }{2}}\sin tdt=1 \end{gathered} Answer the question to unlock