Question 84 of 246HardNUMERICAL
Let [.] be the greatest integer function. If α=∫064(x1/3−[x1/3])dx, then π1∫0απ(sin6θ+cos6θsin2θ)dθ is equal to ____ .
Answer: 36
Solutions · 1
Official solution
\begin{gathered} {\int }_{64}^{0}{X}^{\frac{1}{3}}dx=\frac{3}{4}\cdot {[{X}^{\frac{4}{3}}]}_{64}^{0}=192 \\ {\int }_{64}^{0}[{X}^{1/3}]dx={\int }_{1}^{0}[{X}^{1/3}]dx+{\int }_{8}^{1}[{X}^{1/3}]dx+{\int }_{27}^{8}[{X}^{1/3}]dx{\int }_{64}^{27}[{X}^{1/3}]dx=156
So α=192−156=36
Now E=π1∫36π0sin6θ+cos6θsin2θdθ=π36⋅2∫π0sin6θ+cos6θsin2θdθ
⇒E=π36∫π/20sin6θ+cos6θsin2θdθ
Let J=∫π/20sin6θ+cos6θsin2θdθ………
Applying King J=∫π/20sin6θ+cos6θcos2θdθ………..
Now 2J={\int }_{\pi /2}^{0}\frac{1}{{\sin }^{6}\theta +{\cos }^{6}\theta }d\theta (add(1)\(2))={\int }_{\pi /2}^{0}\frac{{\sec }^{6}\theta }{{\tan }^{6}\theta +1}d\theta
\tan \theta =\lambda \\ {\int }_{\infty}^{0}\frac{{(1+{\lambda }^{2})}^{2}}{{\lambda }^{4}-{\lambda }^{2}+1}d\lambda \\ {\int }_{\infty}^{0}\frac{1+\frac{1}{{\lambda }^{2}}}{{\lambda }^{2}-1+\frac{1}{{\lambda }^{2}}}d\lambda =\pi \\ \Rightarrow J=\frac{\pi }{2} \\ E=\frac{36}{\pi }\cdot 2J=36 \end{gathered}
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