Question 64 of 246MediumMCQ
The value of ∫04πe−x(tan49x+tan51x)dxe−4π+∫04πe−xtan50xdx is
Solutions · 1
Official solution
We're given the expression:
\[\frac{e^{-\pi/4} + \int_0^{\pi / 4} e^{-x} \tan ^{50} x dx}{\int_0^{\pi / 4} e^{-x}(\tan x)^{49} dx + \int_0^{\pi / 4} e^{-x}(\tan x)^{51} dx}\]
Notice that the integrals in the numerator and denominator have the same form. They both involve an integral of e−xtannx from 0 to π/4, where n is an integer. Let's denote this integral as I(n):
\[I(n) = \int_0^{\pi / 4} e^{-x} \tan^n x dx\]
We can then rewrite the original expression in terms of I(n):
\[\frac{e^{-\pi/4} + I(50)}{I(49) + I(51)}\]
Now, we'll apply the method of integration by parts, which states that for two functions u(x) and v(x):
\[\int u dv = uv - \int v du\]
We'll choose:
\[u = \tan^n x, \quad dv = e^{-x} dx\]
Then we get:
\[du = n \tan^{n-1} x \sec^2 x dx, \quad v = -e^{-x}\]
Applying integration by parts, we have:
\[I(n) = -e^{-x} \tan^n x \Bigg|_0^{\pi / 4} + n \int_0^{\pi / 4} e^{-x} \tan^{n-1} x \sec^2 x dx\]
Since tan(π/4)=1, the first term evaluates to:
\[-e^{-\pi / 4}\]
The second term becomes:
\[n \int_0^{\pi / 4} e^{-x} \tan^{n-1} x (1 + \tan^2 x) dx = n \int_0^{\pi / 4} e^{-x} \tan^{n-1} x dx + n \int_0^{\pi / 4} e^{-x} \tan^{n+1} x dx\]
This is equal to:
n(I(n−1)+I(n+1))
So we have:
\[I(n) = -e^{-\pi / 4} + n(I(n-1) + I(n+1))\]
Now we can substitute n=50 into this equation:
\[I(50) = -e^{-\pi / 4} + 50(I(49) + I(51))\]
So the original expression becomes:
\[\frac{e^{-\pi/4} + I(50)}{I(49) + I(51)} = \frac{e^{-\pi/4} - e^{-\pi / 4} + 50(I(49) + I(51))}{I(49) + I(51)} = 50\]
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