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Question 114 of 246MediumNUMERICAL
Let f(x)=x(1+xn)1n,x∈R−−1,n∈N,n>2f(x)=\frac{x}{{(1+{x}^{n})}^{\frac{1}{n}}},x\in R-{-1},n\in N,n>2. If fn(x)=(f∘f∘f….{f}^{n}(x)=(f\circ f\circ f\ldots .. upto nn times) (x)(x), then limn→∞∫01xn−2(fn(x))dx\underset{n\to \infty}{lim}\int _{0}^{1}{x}^{n-2}({f}^{n}(x))dx is equal to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Answer: 0
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