Question 22 of 212MediumMCQ
For the function f(x)=(cosx)−x+1,x∈R, between the following two statements
(S1) f(x)=0 for only one value of x in [0,π].
(S2) f(x) is decreasing in [0,2π] and increasing in [2π,π].
Solutions · 1
Official solution
Let's analyze the function f(x)=(cosx)−x+1 over the interval [0,π] and the statements provided.
First, let's consider statement (S1):
(S1) f(x)=0 for only one value of x in [0,π].
To examine this statement, we need to explore the zeros of the function f(x) within the given interval. Let's define and analyze the function:
f(x)=cosx−x+1
We seek to determine if f(x)=0 has only one solution in the interval [0,π]. To do this, we can use the Intermediate Value Theorem and the behavior of the function's derivative. First, compute the derivative of f(x):
f′(x)=dxd(cosx−x+1)=−sinx−1
The critical points occur when f′(x)=0:
−sinx−1=0⇒sinx=−1.
The equation sinx=−1 does not hold for any x in [0,π]. Note that:
For x∈[0,2π], sinx ranges from 0 to 1.
For x∈[2π,π], sinx ranges from 1 to 0.
Since f′(x) is always negative (i.e., f′(x)f(0)=\cos 0-0+1=1+1=2f(\pi )=\cos \pi -\pi +1=-1-\pi +1=-\pi Giventhecontinuousandstrictlydecreasingnatureoff(x)in[0,\pi ],bytheIntermediateValueTheorem,thereisexactlyonevalueofxintheinterval[0,\pi ]wheref(x)=0,confirming(S1).Now,let′sconsiderstatement(S2):(S2)f(x)isdecreasingin[0,\frac{\pi }{2}]andincreasingin[\frac{\pi }{2},\pi ].Wealreadyanalyzedthat{f}\^{'}(x)showsthat{f}\^{'}(x)=-\sin x-1isalwayslessthanzeroin[0,\pi ].Nointervalexistswherethederivativeispositive.Thismeansthatf(x)isstrictlydecreasingthroughouttheentireintervalof
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